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The treatment of choice for patient with  Rectal carcinoids of less than 1 cm size is: A. local excision B. Anterior resection C. Short-term chemotherapy followed by  local excision D. Short course of radiotherapy followed by local excision Answer: A The Correct Answer is local excision Like Our  Facebook Page  For Daily Update

A 25 years old male patient presents with clinical features suggestive of acute appendicitis. At laparotomy he is found to have 2.5 cm growth at the base of appendix. He should be treated with: A. Appendectomy B. Right hemicolectomy C. Appendectomy followed by right hemicolectomy at later stage if the margins are positive D. Limited illeo-caecal resection The most appropiate treatment option is: C. Appendectomy followed by right hemicolectomy at a later stage if the margins are positive Here's the breakdown of the reasoning: Standard Appendicitis Treatment: Appendectomy is the initial and essential procedure for appendicitis, even when a mass is present. This removes the inflamed appendix and addresses the immediate concern. Mass Raises Concerns: A 2.5 cm mass at the appendix base is significant and necessitates further evaluation due to the increased risk of malignancy (cancer). Pathology Determines Next Steps:  Following the appendectomy, the appendix and the mass will be examin...

What is the treatment of choice for pituitary prolactinomas? A. Surgical intervention B. Radiotherapy C. Combined surgical and radiotherapy approach D. Dopamine agonist therapy D. Dopamine agonists The treatment of choice for pituitary prolactinomas, which are benign tumors of the pituitary gland that secrete prolactin, is Dopamine agonists. These medications work by stimulating dopamine receptors in the pituitary gland, thereby inhibiting prolactin secretion. Surgery (Choice A) may be considered for large or symptomatic prolactinomas that do not respond to medical therapy or in cases of pituitary apoplexy (acute hemorrhage or infarction of the pituitary gland). Radiotherapy (Choice B) is typically reserved for cases where surgery and medical therapy have failed, or in cases of aggressive or refractory tumors. Surgery followed by radiotherapy (Choice C) may be considered in selected cases, but it is not the primary treatment of choice for prolactinomas. Dopamine agonists are typically...

An 18 years old male underwent bilateral Adrenalectomy for bilateral pheocytochromas. 48 hours following surgery He is feeling lethargic and very tired. His Blood pressure is 80/60 mmHg and his pulse Rate 90/mins. Clinical examination doesn’t Reveal any sign of volume loss. The most Likely diagnosis is: A. Sepsis B. Cardiogenic shock C. Addisonian crises D. Hypovolumeic shock The patient's presentation of lethargy, extreme fatigue, hypotension (blood pressure 80/60 mmHg), and tachycardia (pulse rate 90/min) following bilateral adrenalectomy suggests an acute adrenal insufficiency, known as Addisonian crisis. Bilateral adrenalectomy results in the sudden cessation of adrenal hormone production, leading to adrenal crisis. In Addisonian crisis, the adrenal glands fail to produce adequate amounts of cortisol and aldosterone, resulting in hypotension, electrolyte imbalances, and dehydration. The symptoms of lethargy, fatigue, and hypotension, along with the absence of signs of volume ...

Which one of the following drug must be stopped before performing assay for diagnosis of hyper-aldosteronism: A. Spironolactone B. Calcium channel blocker C. Fluconazole D. Oral contraceptive pills The drug that needs to be stopped before performing an assay for diagnosis of hyper-aldosteronism is: A. Spironolactone Here's why: Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist, which means it directly blocks the action of aldosterone. This can interfere with the accuracy of the test results, making it difficult to diagnose hyper-aldosteronism, a condition characterized by excessive aldosterone production. Calcium channel blockers and Fluconazole do not directly affect the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) and are generally not considered to significantly interfere with the tests for hyper-aldosteronism. Oral contraceptive pills may influence the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system in some individuals, but the effect is usually considered minimal and may not always requi...

Pheochromocytomas are most commonly: A. Benign tumors B. Malignant tumors C. Found in both adrenal glands (bilateral) D. Located outside the adrenal glands (extra-adrenal) The answer is A. Benign tumors. While Pheochromocytomas can be malignant, around 10-15% of the cases, the majority, approximately 85%, are benign. This means they are not cancerous and are less likely to spread to other parts of the body. Here's a breakdown of the other options: B. Malignant tumors: As mentioned earlier, while some Pheochromocytomas are malignant, it's not the most common occurrence. C. Found in both adrenal glands (bilateral): While it's possible to have Pheochromocytoma in both adrenal glands (around 10%), it's not the most common location. D. Located outside the adrenal glands (extra-adrenal): While Pheochromocytomas can develop outside the adrenal glands, those occurring within the adrenal glands are more prevalent (around 85%). Like Our  Facebook Page  For Daily Update

A high prevalence of skin pigmentation, muscle weakness and hypokalemia is associated with which type of cushing syndrome: A. Ectopic secretion of ACTH B. ACTH secreting pituitary adenomas C. Adrenal adenoma D. Iatrogenic The most likely type of Cushing's syndrome associated with a high prevalence of skin pigmentation, muscle weakness, and hypokalemia is: A. Ectopic secretion of ACTH Here's why: Skin pigmentation: Ectopic ACTH secretion, often caused by tumors outside the pituitary gland (like lung cancer), tends to lead to more prominent and widespread skin pigmentation compared to other forms of Cushing's syndrome. This is thought to be due to higher levels and different patterns of ACTH secretion. Muscle weakness: Ectopic ACTH secretion tends to cause more rapid and severe muscle weakness than other forms, possibly due to the additional effects of ACTH itself on muscle function. Hypokalemia: High levels of cortisol associated with Cushing's syndrome can lead to pot...

A woman presents with an acute, painful thyroid swelling, malaise, and fever two weeks after a sore throat. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute suppurative thyroiditis B. Sub-acute thyroiditis (De Quervain's thyroiditis) C. Graves' disease D. Follicular thyroid carcinoma

The treatment of choice in a patient with well  Differentiated thyroid cancer is: A. Total thyroidectomy B. Subtotal thyroidectomy C. Total thyroidectomy and modified neck  Dissection D. Hemi-thyroidectomy and berry priking of  Lymph nodes Answer: A The treatment of choice for well-differentiated thyroid cancer typically involves surgical removal of the thyroid gland. The appropriate surgical procedure may vary depending on the specific characteristics of the cancer and the patient's individual circumstances. However, the most commonly recommended option is: A. Total thyroidectomy Total thyroidectomy involves the complete removal of the thyroid gland. In some cases, additional procedures like modified neck dissection may be performed if there is evidence of lymph node involvement. The choice between total thyroidectomy and other surgical options will depend on factors such as the extent of the cancer and whether there is evidence of lymph node metastasis. Op...

The most sensitive and specific imaging  Method for the localization of a parathyroid Adenoma is: A. CT of the neck B. MRI of neck and chest C. Thallium technetium pertechnetate scan D. Sestamibi scan Answer: D The Correct Answer is Sestamibi scan Sestamibi scan is considered to be the most sensitive and specific imaging method for the localization of a parathyroid adenoma. Sestamibi (technetium-99m methoxyisobutylisonitrile) is a radiopharmaceutical that is taken up specifically by parathyroid cells, allowing for high-resolution imaging of parathyroid tumors. Other imaging methods such as ultrasonography and CT scan of the neck may also be used but Sestamibi scan is considered to be the most sensitive and specific method for parathyroid adenoma localization. Like Our  Facebook Page  For Daily Update

A 45 years old female patient presents with  Acute confusion, abdominal pain, vomiting And dehydration. ECG shows Prolonged shortened QT interval with shortened ST segment. The most Likely abnormality is: A. Hypercalcaemia B. Hypomagnesemia C. Hypocalcaemia D. Hyponatremia Answer: A The Correct Answer is   Hypercalcemia The symptoms of acute confusion, abdominal pain, vomiting, and dehydration, along with the ECG findings of a prolonged QT interval and shortened ST segment, suggest a possible diagnosis of hypercalcemia.  Hypercalcemia is a condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood and can be caused by various underlying medical conditions such as malignancy, hyperparathyroidism, or certain medications. However, it is important to note that these symptoms and ECG findings can also be caused by other underlying medical conditions and a thorough evaluation is needed to confirm the diagnosis. Like Our  Facebook Page  For Dail...

The treatment of choice in a patient with  Normo-calcaemic Hyperparathyroidism is: A. Calcium supplementation B. Parathyroidectomy C. Treatment with calcineurin D. Administration  Of  1,25 Dihydroxycholecalciferol Answer: B The Correct Answer is Parathyroidectomy Like Our  Facebook Page  For Daily Update

The thyroid cancer that is associated with  Multiple endocrine neoplasia is: A. Follicular Ca B. Papillary Ca C. Medullary Ca D. Anaplastic Ca Answer: C The Correct Answer is Medullary Ca Like Our  Facebook Page  For Daily Update

Iodide alone is not used in the Pre-Operative  Preparations of a thyrotoxicosis patient Because: A. It worsens thyrotoxicosis B. It increases vascularity of goiter C. Rapid control of thyrotoxicosis is not possible D. None of the above Answer: C The Correct Answer is Rapid control of thyrotoxicosis is not possible Like Our  Facebook Page  For Daily Update

The most common cause of hypercalcemic  Crisis is A. Ca-breast B. Parathyroid adenoma C. Parathyroid hyperplasia D. Paget’s disease Answer: B The Correct Answer is Parathyroid adenoma Like Our  Facebook Page  For Daily Update

The treatment of choice for 35 yrs old  Pregnant female with thyrotoxicosis is: A. Radioactive iodine B. Anti-thyroid drugs C. Surgery Beta-blocker Answer: B The Correct Answer is Anti-thyroid drugs Like Our  Facebook Page  For Daily Update

The most common location of thyroglossal  Cyst is: A. Subhyoid B. Over the thyroid cartilage c. Suprahyoid D. Sublingual Answer: A The Correct Answer is Subhyoid Like Our  Facebook Page  For Daily Update

Major indication for surgical intervention in  case of hemangioma: A. Progressive growth B. Functional impairment of organ C. Hemorrhage D. All of them Answer: D The Correct Answer is All of them Like Our  Facebook Page  For Daily Update

The most common type of hemangioma is : A. Stork bite B. Strawberry C. Port-wine stain D. Salmon patch Answer: B The Correct Answer is Strawberry Like Our  Facebook Page  For Daily Update

Malignant melanomas are known to be the  Most aggressive cutaneous neoplasm. Which of the following sub-type of it shows worst Prognosis : A. Nodular melanoma B. Lenigomaligna C. Acrallentiginous D. Amelantie melanoma Answer: D The Correct Answer is Amelantie melanoma Like Our  Facebook Page  For Daily Update

Independent Prognostic variables for  Squamous Cell Carcinoma includes all EXCEPT: A. Gender B. Depth of tumor C. Perineural involvement D. Size of tumor Answer: A The Correct Answer is Gender Like Our  Facebook Page  For Daily Update

Most common intra-dural extra-medullary  Spinal cord tumor is: A. Medulloblastoma B. Schwannoma C. Oligodendrogliomas D. Spinal neuro-fibroma Answer: D The Correct Answer is Spinal neuro-fibroma Like Our  Facebook Page  For Daily Update

Painless swelling in the line of embryonic  Fusion is a feature of: A. Thyroid swelling B. Angular dermoids C Fibroma D. None of them Answer: B The Correct Answer is  Angular dermoids Like Our  Facebook Page  For Daily Update

Examination of oral cavity of a young boy  Shows a swelling on the tongue which is  Brilliantly trans-illuminant. Which of the  Other swelling also shows same positive test of Trans-illuminancy? A. Lymph cyst B. Cystic hygroma C. Meningiocele D. All of them Answer: D The Correct Answer is  All of them Like Our  Facebook Page  For Daily Update

Apoplectic cyst is an ischemic cyst that is  Formed basically in : A. Brain B. Kidney C. Skin D. Liver Answer: A The Correct Answer is Brain Like Our  Facebook Page  For Daily Update

Which one of the following is considered as a u niversal tumor: A. Meningioma B. Melanoma C. Hemangioma D. Lipoma Answer: D The Correct Answer is Lipoma Like Our  Facebook Page  For Daily Update

Treatment option of frost bite includes: A. Gradual warming B. Paravertebral inj to sympathetic chain C. Hyperbaric oxygen D. All of them Answer: D The Correct Answer is   All of them Like Our  Facebook Page  For Daily Update

Therapeutic embolization is done in the case o f: A. Hemangiomas B. AV fistulas C. Renal cell carcinoma D. All of them Answer: D  The Correct Answer is All of them Like Our  Facebook Page  For Daily Update

A 20 years old boy was operated for the  Fracture of femur 2 days ago, now he complains of severe tachypnea. He is Suspected for having fat embolism. Which One of the following organ will show the earliest sign of fat embolism? A. Cerebral B. Kidney C. Cutaneous D. Retinal Answer: D  The Correct Answer is Retinal Like Our  Facebook Page  For Daily Update

All of the following factors are considered as  Contra-indication for the use of thrombolytic  Therapy in a patient with arterial embolism  Except: A. Recent cye surgery B. Active peptic ulcer C. Pregnancy D. Family history of stroke Answer: D (G) The Correct Answer is Family history of stroke Like Our  Facebook Page  For Daily Update