MRCS Part A — Abdomen & Vessels
52 Consolidated MCQs · 123 Source Recalls · Anatomy, Vascular Relations & Clinical Surgery
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MRCS Part A — Abdomen & Vessels: High-Yield Revision Notes
Structured notes by topic, not individual MCQ summaries. Based on the supplied 52-question document; use the linked MCQs to test each section.
1. Major abdominal arterial anatomy
Aortic origins and levels
| Coeliac trunk | Around T12; foregut |
|---|---|
| Superior mesenteric artery (SMA) | Around L1; midgut |
| Renal arteries | Usually L1–L2, below SMA |
| Inferior mesenteric artery (IMA) | Around L3; hindgut |
| Aortic bifurcation | Usually L4; common iliac arteries |
Mesenteric distributions
| SMA branches | Middle colic: proximal two-thirds transverse colon; ileocolic: terminal ileum, caecum, appendix |
|---|---|
| IMA branches | Left colic: descending/distal transverse colon; sigmoid arteries: sigmoid colon; superior rectal: upper rectum |
| Surgical high tie | Dividing IMA close to aortic origin; a low tie can preserve left colic artery |
Anastomoses and watershed zones
| Griffiths point | Splenic flexure: middle colic (SMA) meets left colic (IMA); vulnerable to low flow |
|---|---|
| Marginal artery of Drummond | Collateral arcade near colonic margin joining colic territories |
| Arc of Riolan | Variable central SMA–IMA collateral route; middle colic may maintain IMA territory in occlusion |
Embryology
Midgut rotates a total of 270° anticlockwise around SMA (viewed anteriorly): 90° during physiological herniation, 180° on return. Persistent vitelline arterial supply to a Meckel diverticulum belongs to the SMA system.
Practice related MCQs: Q14, Q19, Q27, Q34, Q38, Q39, Q41, Q43, Q44, Q51
2. Splenic vessels, pancreas and splenectomy
Splenic artery and vein
| Splenic artery | Coeliac trunk branch running tortuously along the superior border of pancreas |
|---|---|
| Splenic vein | Runs posterior to pancreatic body; joins SMV behind the pancreatic neck to form portal vein |
| Splenorenal ligament | Contains splenic hilar vessels and pancreatic tail |
| Gastrosplenic ligament | Contains short gastric and left gastroepiploic vessels |
Operative injury patterns
Hilar ligation endangers the pancreatic tail → postoperative leak/fistula. Division of short gastric vessels endangers gastric fundus. Separate the pancreatic tail from the hilar pedicle before division.
Pancreatic relationships
Uncinate process lies posterior to SMA/SMV; pancreatic neck lies anterior to superior mesenteric vessels. Splenic vein thrombosis can cause isolated gastric varices.
Practice related MCQs: Q1, Q2, Q16, Q18, Q22, Q47, Q52
3. Gastric, duodenal and oesophageal circulation
Arterial supply
| Lesser curvature | Left and right gastric arteries |
|---|---|
| Proximal greater curvature and fundus | Left gastroepiploic + short gastric arteries from splenic system |
| Distal greater curvature / antrum | Right gastroepiploic arises from gastroduodenal artery |
| Abdominal oesophagus | Ascending left gastric branches; inferior phrenic contributions also occur |
| First part of duodenum (posterior) | Gastroduodenal artery lies close behind D1 |
Clinical and operative contrasts
Posterior duodenal ulcer → gastroduodenal arterial haemorrhage. Anterior duodenal ulcer → free perforation. Fundal lymph passes through regional perigastric/pancreaticosplenic nodes towards coeliac nodes.
Portal hypertension
Lower oesophageal varices: portal-side left gastric tributaries communicate with oesophageal veins draining to azygos-system channels. Short gastric veins are more associated with gastric fundal varices.
Practice related MCQs: Q5, Q7, Q8, Q20, Q32, Q35
4. Renal vessels, hilum, gonadal and adrenal veins
Renal vascular relationships
| Renal hilum: anterior → posterior | Renal vein → renal artery → renal pelvis (V–A–P) |
|---|---|
| Right renal artery | Passes posterior to inferior vena cava en route to right kidney |
| Left renal vein | Usually anterior to aorta and posterior to SMA; retroaortic/circumaortic variants exist |
| Anterior nutcracker syndrome | Compression of left renal vein between SMA and aorta; left varicocele may result |
Venous drainage
| Right gonadal / testicular vein | Usually directly into IVC |
|---|---|
| Left gonadal / testicular vein | Usually into left renal vein |
| Right adrenal vein | Usually directly into IVC; short and surgically important |
| Left adrenal vein | Usually into left renal vein, sometimes via common trunk with inferior phrenic |
| Inferior epigastric vein | Deep inferior epigastric drains to external iliac; superficial epigastric drains to femoral |
Varicocele assessment
Left-sided varicocele may reflect left renal vein outflow obstruction. When clinical examination is inconclusive, scrotal Doppler ultrasound is the initial imaging test.
Practice related MCQs: Q3, Q4, Q6, Q10, Q13, Q23, Q33, Q37, Q40, Q46, Q48, Q49, Q50
5. Portal venous anatomy and collateral pathways
Portal vein formation
Splenic vein joins SMV behind neck of pancreas to create the portal vein. IMV most commonly drains into splenic vein; anatomical variations include SMV or portal confluence.
Portosystemic connections
Portal hypertensive flow via left gastric veins and oesophageal azygos connections produces lower oesophageal varices; short gastric-related collateral pathways contribute to fundal varices.
Clinical distinction
Dilated oesophageal submucosal veins rupture; left gastric vein is the principal portal tributary of that pathway, not the name of the vessel that ruptures.
Practice related MCQs: Q5, Q36, Q52
6. Renal transplantation: vascular emergencies and rejection
Distinguishing early graft complications
| Hyperacute rejection | Minutes to hours following reperfusion; pre-existing donor-reactive anti-ABO/anti-HLA antibodies, complement activation |
|---|---|
| Acute T-cell-mediated rejection | Often days or later; biopsy with interstitial T-cell infiltration and tubulitis |
| Renal artery thrombosis | Sudden anuria + absent main arterial/intrarenal Doppler perfusion |
| Renal vein thrombosis | Painful swollen graft, anuria; absent venous flow and possible reversed arterial diastolic flow |
Immediate assessment
Confirm urinary catheter patency, haemodynamic status, Doppler arterial/venous flow and exclude surgical obstruction. An absent arterial or venous signal demands urgent transplant-team assessment; biopsy is used to establish rejection after appropriate evaluation.
Examiner trap
Timing or a dusky swollen graft alone does not establish the diagnosis. Reversed diastolic arterial flow is not independently pathognomonic of venous thrombosis.
Practice related MCQs: Q25, Q26, Q28, Q29
7. Intestinal ischaemia, short bowel and clinical surgery
Ischaemia and anatomy
Splenic flexure (Griffiths point) and rectosigmoid region are vulnerable watershed sites. Colonic collateral routes should be assessed when major mesenteric branches are compromised.
Intestinal failure
With only approximately 5 cm of jejunum connected to colon after massive resection, enteral absorption is insufficient for long-term support: parenteral nutrition and IV fluid/electrolyte supplementation are generally required.
After Roux-en-Y bypass
Confirmed iron deficiency that persists despite adequate oral therapy may need intravenous iron; investigate bleeding and concurrent B12/folate deficiency.
Splenic and lymphatic clinical signs
Hypersplenism causes blood-cell sequestration and macrophage-mediated destruction; left supraclavicular Virchow node (Troisier sign when pathological) is classically associated with gastric malignancy, but is not specific.
Practice related MCQs: Q11, Q12, Q21, Q30, Q42
8. Other vascular, nerve and applied anatomy
Nerves and autonomic receptors
| Beta-1 receptors | Cardiac myocardium: increase heart rate, conduction and contractility; juxtaglomerular receptors increase renin |
|---|---|
| Beta-2 receptors | Bronchial smooth-muscle relaxation |
| Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve | L2–L3, purely sensory; entrapment near ASIS/inguinal ligament → meralgia paraesthetica |
Named vessels and plexuses
| Kiesselbach plexus | Anterior nasal septum (Little area): common source of anterior epistaxis |
|---|---|
| Coronary dominance | Determined by origin of posterior descending/posterior interventricular artery: RCA in right dominance; circumflex in left |
| Inferior rectal artery | Usually internal pudendal branch supplying lower anal canal below pectinate line |
Examiner trap
Blood on digital rectal examination alone cannot localise a particular bleeding artery; angiographic localisation is needed to select an embolisation target.
Practice related MCQs: Q9, Q15, Q17, Q24, Q31, Q45
9. Rapid final-revision tables
Five relationships to memorise
| Pancreatic tail | At risk in splenic hilar dissection |
|---|---|
| Fundus | At risk during short gastric vessel division |
| Renal hilum | V–A–P (front → back) |
| Left renal vein | Aorta behind; SMA in front |
| Right renal artery | Passes behind IVC |
Five core vascular associations
| Posterior D1 ulcer | Gastroduodenal artery |
|---|---|
| Splenic flexure | SMA–IMA watershed |
| Lower oesophageal varices | Left gastric ↔ azygos-system pathway |
| IMV | Usually enters splenic vein |
| PDA origin | Defines coronary arterial dominance |
Practice related MCQs: Q1, Q5, Q10, Q14, Q18, Q23, Q25, Q26, Q28, Q29, Q36, Q39, Q41
During ligation of the splenic hilar vessels, which structure is most at risk of injury?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: C. Tail of pancreas
Explanation: The pancreatic tail lies in the splenorenal ligament, close to the splenic hilar vessels. It may be caught during clamping or ligation, causing a pancreatic leak or fistula.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Fundus of stomach: More at risk during division of the short gastric vessels in the gastrosplenic ligament.
- B. Splenic flexure: Lies below the spleen; vulnerable during lower-pole mobilisation.
- D. Left ureter: Lies retroperitoneally, away from the splenic hilar pedicle.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Splenic artery: Branch of the coeliac trunk; runs along the superior border of the pancreas.
- Splenic vein: Runs behind the pancreas and joins the SMV behind the pancreatic neck to form the portal vein.
- Gastrosplenic ligament: Contains short gastric and left gastroepiploic vessels.
- Operative precaution: Identify and separate the pancreatic tail before dividing the hilar vessels.
Exam Pearl: Splenic hilar ligation → pancreatic tail injury → pancreatic fistula.
Along which border of the pancreas does the splenic artery usually run?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: C. Superior border
Explanation: The splenic artery follows a tortuous course along the superior pancreatic border towards the spleen.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Inferior border: Not its usual course.
- B. Anterior border: The artery does not normally cross the anterior surface.
- D. Within the main pancreatic duct: The duct carries pancreatic secretions, not blood.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Origin: The splenic artery is a branch of the coeliac trunk.
- Course: It follows the superior pancreatic border towards the splenic hilum.
- Venous contrast: The splenic vein runs posterior to the pancreas.
Exam Pearl: Splenic artery above the pancreas; splenic vein behind it.
The left testicular vein usually drains into which vessel?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: A. Left renal vein
Explanation: The left testicular vein joins the left renal vein, commonly at approximately a right angle.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- B. Inferior vena cava: Usual drainage of the right testicular vein.
- C. Left adrenal vein: A separate tributary of the left renal vein.
- D. Internal iliac vein: Drains pelvic structures.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Right-sided drainage: The right testicular vein usually enters the IVC.
- Left-sided drainage: The left gonadal and adrenal veins enter the left renal vein.
- Clinical relevance: Left renal venous obstruction may cause a left varicocele.
Exam Pearl: Left gonadal vein → left renal vein; right gonadal vein → IVC.
In normal anatomy, the left renal vein crosses the aorta in which position?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: D. Anterior to the aorta
Explanation: The normal left renal vein passes in front of the aorta and behind the superior mesenteric artery (SMA). Thus the aorta is posterior to the vein.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Posterior to the aorta: Possible anatomical variant, not the usual arrangement.
- B. Posterior to the renal pelvis: The vein is anterior in the renal hilum.
- C. Behind both the aorta and vertebral body: Not the normal renal venous course.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Anterior boundary: The SMA lies anterior to the normal left renal vein.
- Posterior boundary: The aorta lies posterior to it.
- Variants: Retroaortic and circumaortic left renal veins matter during surgery.
Exam Pearl: Aorta → left renal vein → SMA, from posterior to anterior.
Which portal tributary chiefly supplies the portosystemic collateral pathway responsible for lower oesophageal varices?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: B. Left gastric vein
Explanation: Portal hypertension diverts blood through left gastric tributaries into oesophageal veins communicating with the azygos system.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Right gastric vein: Drains the lesser curvature but is not the principal oesophageal pathway.
- C. Short gastric veins: More closely associated with fundal gastric varices.
- D. Right gastroepiploic vein: Drains towards the superior mesenteric vein.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Portal connection: The left gastric vein provides the important portal-side pathway.
- Systemic connection: Oesophageal veins communicate with azygos and hemiazygos channels.
- Bleeding site: The vessels that rupture are dilated submucosal oesophageal veins.
Exam Pearl: Lower oesophageal varices connect left gastric and azygos-system veins.
The main renal arteries usually arise from the aorta near which vertebral level?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: C. L1–L2
Explanation: The renal arteries usually originate laterally near the L1–L2 disc, just below the SMA. There is individual variation.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. T8: Too high; within the thorax.
- B. L3–L4: Below the usual renal arterial origins.
- D. L5–S1: Near the iliac vessels rather than the renal origins.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Origin: Renal arteries arise from the lateral aspect of the abdominal aorta.
- Level: L1–L2 is the usual region, with individual variation.
- Nearby branch: The SMA usually arises immediately above the main renal arterial origins.
Exam Pearl: Renal artery origin is usually near L1–L2, not an invariant single vertebra.
A posterior ulcer in the first part of the duodenum causes massive haematemesis. Which artery is most likely eroded?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: A. Gastroduodenal artery
Explanation: The gastroduodenal artery lies immediately behind the first duodenal part and can be eroded by a posterior ulcer.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- B. Left gastric artery: Associated with the lesser curvature of the stomach.
- C. Superior mesenteric artery: Passes anterior to the third duodenal part.
- D. Right gastroepiploic artery: Runs along the distal greater curvature.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Relation: The gastroduodenal artery passes posterior to the first duodenal part.
- Ulcer contrast: A posterior duodenal ulcer classically causes bleeding.
- Perforation contrast: An anterior duodenal ulcer classically causes free perforation.
Exam Pearl: Posterior D1 ulcer → gastroduodenal artery bleeding.
An ulcer lies near the greater curvature at the body–antrum junction. Which artery is most closely related?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: D. Right gastroepiploic artery
Explanation: The right gastroepiploic artery runs along the distal greater curvature and supplies the adjacent body and antrum.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Left gastric artery: Runs along the lesser curvature.
- B. Left gastroepiploic artery: Predominantly supplies the proximal left greater curvature.
- C. Short gastric arteries: Supply the fundus.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Origin: The right gastroepiploic artery arises from the gastroduodenal artery.
- Regional contrast: The left gastroepiploic artery supplies the proximal greater curvature.
- Location matters: Body–antrum junction without specifying the curvature is insufficient.
Exam Pearl: Distal greater curvature → right gastroepiploic artery.
Beta-1 adrenoceptors are particularly prominent in which tissue?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: B. Cardiac myocardium
Explanation: Cardiac beta-1 stimulation increases heart rate, conduction and contractility.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Bronchial smooth muscle: Beta-2 stimulation causes bronchodilation.
- C. Most arteriolar smooth muscle: Alpha-1 mediates much sympathetic vasoconstriction.
- D. Gastrointestinal smooth muscle: Not the principal beta-1 target.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Cardiac effect: Beta-1 activation increases rate, conduction and contractility.
- Renal effect: Juxtaglomerular beta-1 receptors stimulate renin release.
- Receptor contrast: Bronchodilation is chiefly mediated by beta-2 receptors.
Exam Pearl: Beta-1: heart stimulation and renal renin release.
Which structure lies immediately anterior to the main renal artery at the renal hilum?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: C. Renal vein
Explanation: The usual anterior-to-posterior hilar order is renal vein, renal artery, then renal pelvis.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Renal pelvis: Lies posterior to the artery.
- B. Ureter: Continues from the pelvis inferiorly.
- D. Splenic vein: Runs behind the pancreas, not within the renal hilum.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Hilar order: Vein, artery and pelvis from anterior to posterior.
- Posterior relation: The pelvis lies behind the main renal artery.
- Operative point: Branching variations should be reviewed before hilar dissection.
Exam Pearl: Renal hilum: V–A–P.
Which site is the classic watershed between superior and inferior mesenteric arterial territories?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: D. Splenic flexure
Explanation: At the splenic flexure, middle colic and left colic territories meet. Inadequate collateral flow makes this region vulnerable during hypoperfusion.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Caecum: Supplied by ileocolic branches; not this watershed.
- B. Ascending colon: Usually within SMA territory.
- C. Mid rectum: Receives pelvic as well as superior rectal supply.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Name: The splenic-flexure watershed is Griffiths point.
- Contributing arteries: Middle colic and left colic territories meet here.
- Another watershed: The rectosigmoid region is also vulnerable to low flow.
Exam Pearl: Splenic flexure = SMA–IMA watershed.
What best explains increased red-cell destruction in hypersplenism?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: B. Splenic sequestration with macrophage-mediated destruction
Explanation: Retained erythrocytes undergo increased exposure to splenic macrophages, producing extravascular haemolysis.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Reduced marrow production alone: Explains underproduction rather than splenic destruction.
- C. Obligatory autoantibody secretion: Immune mechanisms occur in some diseases but are not universal.
- D. Direct destruction by portal pressure: Pressure causes congestion, not direct red-cell phagocytosis.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Mechanism: Splenic retention increases exposure of blood cells to macrophages.
- Other cells: Hypersplenism may cause thrombocytopenia and leukopenia as well as anaemia.
- Important distinction: Autoimmune haemolysis is one disease mechanism, not a universal explanation.
Exam Pearl: Hypersplenism causes sequestration and increased blood-cell destruction.
The right testicular vein usually drains directly into which vessel?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: C. Inferior vena cava
Explanation: Unlike the left gonadal vein, the right gonadal vein normally enters the IVC directly.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Right renal vein: A recognised variant, not the usual answer.
- B. Portal vein: Drains the gastrointestinal portal territory.
- D. Internal iliac vein: Primarily drains pelvic structures.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Right gonadal vein: Usually drains directly to the IVC.
- Left gonadal vein: Usually drains to the left renal vein.
- Adrenal comparison: Right adrenal drainage is to the IVC; left adrenal drainage is to the left renal vein.
Exam Pearl: Right gonadal and adrenal veins → IVC.
At which vertebral level does the abdominal aorta usually divide into common iliac arteries?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: A. L4
Explanation: The aorta typically bifurcates at L4, with normal anatomical variation.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- B. T12: Level of the aortic hiatus.
- C. L1: Near the SMA origin.
- D. L5: Near the usual formation of the IVC.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Coeliac trunk: Usually arises near T12.
- Mesenteric arteries: SMA at L1; IMA at L3.
- Venous contrast: IVC formation is usually near L5.
Exam Pearl: Coeliac T12; SMA L1; IMA L3; aortic bifurcation L4.
Most anterior nasal septal bleeding arises from which vascular network?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: D. Kiesselbach plexus
Explanation: Little area contains an arterial anastomotic plexus; its location alone does not identify one unique bleeding artery.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Woodruff plexus: Posterior nasal region.
- B. Pterygoid venous plexus: Deep facial venous network.
- C. Cavernous sinus: Intracranial venous sinus.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Location: Little's area lies on the anterior nasal septum.
- Arterial contributors: Anterior ethmoidal, sphenopalatine, greater palatine and superior labial branches contribute.
- Recall correction: The location alone cannot identify one unique bleeding artery.
Exam Pearl: Anterior epistaxis usually arises from Little's area.
During division of the short gastric vessels at splenectomy, which structure is most at risk of direct injury?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: B. Gastric fundus
Explanation: Short gastric vessels pass through the gastrosplenic ligament to the fundus; traction or misplaced ligatures can damage its wall.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Pancreatic tail: Most associated with splenic hilar dissection.
- C. Left adrenal gland: Lies deeper in the retroperitoneum.
- D. Transverse colon: More closely associated with inferior splenic mobilisation.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Ligament: Short gastric vessels lie in the gastrosplenic ligament.
- Blood supply: These vessels supply the gastric fundus.
- Surgical contrast: Hilar-vessel dissection particularly threatens the pancreatic tail.
Exam Pearl: Short gastric division → fundus injury; hilar division → pancreatic tail injury.
The inferior epigastric vein usually drains into which vein?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: C. External iliac vein
Explanation: The deep inferior epigastric vessels join the external iliac vessels above the inguinal ligament.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Internal iliac vein: Drains the pelvis rather than this deep abdominal-wall vein.
- B. Femoral vein: Receives the superficial epigastric vein.
- D. Inferior mesenteric vein: Drains hindgut structures.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Deep vessel: The inferior epigastric vein joins the external iliac vein.
- Superficial vessel: The superficial epigastric vein drains to the femoral vein.
- Arterial companion: The inferior epigastric artery usually arises from the external iliac artery.
Exam Pearl: Inferior epigastric = external iliac; superficial epigastric = femoral.
Which ligament contains the splenic hilar vessels and pancreatic tail?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: A. Splenorenal ligament
Explanation: The splenorenal, or lienorenal, ligament connects the spleen to the posterior abdominal wall over the left kidney and encloses the pedicle.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- B. Gastrosplenic ligament: Contains short gastric and left gastroepiploic vessels.
- C. Hepatoduodenal ligament: Contains the portal triad.
- D. Falciform ligament: Connects the liver to the anterior abdominal wall.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Contents: The splenorenal ligament is associated with the splenic vessels and pancreatic tail.
- Gastrosplenic contrast: Contains short gastric and left gastroepiploic vessels.
- Portal-triad contrast: The hepatoduodenal ligament contains the portal triad.
Exam Pearl: Splenorenal ligament → splenic pedicle and pancreatic tail.
If a high vascular tie is chosen during anterior resection, which artery is divided near its aortic origin?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: D. Inferior mesenteric artery
Explanation: A high tie divides the IMA near its aortic origin, usually at L3.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Superior mesenteric artery: Supplies the midgut and is not the pedicle divided.
- B. Internal iliac artery: A pelvic artery, not the standard high tie.
- C. Middle colic artery: Supplies transverse colon.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Origin: The IMA usually arises from the anterior aorta at L3.
- High tie: Divides the IMA near its origin.
- Low tie: Preserves the left colic artery; the chosen level depends on the operation.
Exam Pearl: High tie divides IMA; low tie preserves left colic.
The right gastroepiploic artery normally arises from which vessel?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: B. Gastroduodenal artery
Explanation: The gastroduodenal artery gives rise to the right gastroepiploic artery, which travels along the greater curvature.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Splenic artery: Gives the left gastroepiploic artery.
- C. Left gastric artery: Supplies the lesser curvature.
- D. Superior mesenteric artery: Not the usual direct origin.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Right gastroepiploic: Arises from the gastroduodenal artery.
- Left gastroepiploic: Arises from the splenic artery.
- Distribution: Gastroepiploic vessels run along the greater curvature.
Exam Pearl: Right gastroepiploic → gastroduodenal; left → splenic.
A patient has iron-deficiency anaemia, weight loss and a hard left supraclavicular node. Which malignancy is classically associated?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: C. Gastric carcinoma
Explanation: Gastric carcinoma may spread through abdominal lymphatics and the thoracic duct to the left supraclavicular region.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Uncomplicated peptic ulcer: May cause anaemia but not a metastatic node.
- B. Acute appendicitis: Does not explain these chronic findings.
- D. Benign gallstones: Do not cause Virchow-node metastasis.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Node: Virchow node is the left supraclavicular node.
- Sign: Pathological enlargement is called Troisier sign.
- Limitation: Other abdominal and thoracic malignancies can also enlarge this node.
Exam Pearl: Hard left supraclavicular node is classically associated with gastric carcinoma.
Which artery passes anterior to the uncinate process of the pancreas?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: A. Superior mesenteric artery
Explanation: The uncinate process lies behind the superior mesenteric vessels; the pancreatic neck is anterior to them.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- B. Inferior mesenteric artery: Arises much lower, usually at L3.
- C. Splenic artery: Runs along the pancreatic superior border.
- D. Coeliac trunk: Arises above the SMA rather than crossing the uncinate process.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Vessel relation: The uncinate process lies behind both SMA and SMV.
- Neck contrast: The pancreatic neck lies anterior to the superior mesenteric vessels.
- Recall correction: A fragment calling the SMV an arterial aneurysm cannot be accepted as a verified original question.
Exam Pearl: Uncinate behind mesenteric vessels; neck in front.
The right renal artery passes posterior to which major vessel?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: D. Inferior vena cava
Explanation: The right renal artery travels from the aorta behind the IVC to reach the right kidney.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Right renal pelvis: The artery is anterior to the pelvis.
- B. Main portal vein: Not its defining renal hilar relation.
- C. Inferior mesenteric vein: Not the relevant crossing vessel.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Crossing: The right renal artery passes behind the IVC.
- Hilar relation: It also lies behind the main renal vein.
- Pelvis relation: The renal artery is anterior to the renal pelvis.
Exam Pearl: Right renal artery → posterior to IVC.
The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve usually arises from which spinal roots?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: B. L2–L3
Explanation: It is a purely sensory lumbar plexus nerve supplying the anterolateral thigh.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. L1 only: Associated with ilioinguinal and iliohypogastric nerves.
- C. L2–L4: Typical roots of femoral and obturator nerves.
- D. S1–S3: Typical roots of the posterior femoral cutaneous nerve.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Roots: The usual origin is L2–L3.
- Function: It supplies sensation to the anterolateral thigh.
- Entrapment: Compression near the ASIS/inguinal ligament causes meralgia paraesthetica without motor weakness.
Exam Pearl: Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve: L2–L3, purely sensory.
A renal graft becomes cyanotic minutes after reperfusion; major vessels are patent and preformed donor-reactive antibodies are demonstrated. What is the cause?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: C. Hyperacute antibody-mediated rejection
Explanation: Pre-existing anti-ABO or anti-HLA antibodies can activate complement and cause rapid microvascular thrombosis and graft failure.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Acute T-cell-mediated rejection: Usually develops later, not within minutes from preformed antibodies.
- B. Renal artery thrombosis: Major arterial patency is documented here.
- D. Chronic rejection: Develops over a much longer period.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Mechanism: Preformed anti-ABO or anti-HLA antibodies may cause complement-mediated injury.
- Timing: Hyperacute rejection can occur within minutes to hours.
- Immediate assessment: Exclude arterial or venous obstruction and technical problems in a dusky graft.
Exam Pearl: Immediate graft failure with preformed antibodies → hyperacute rejection.
Ten days after transplantation, creatinine rises; graft vessels are patent and biopsy shows tubulitis with interstitial T-cell infiltration. What is the diagnosis?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: A. Acute T-cell-mediated rejection
Explanation: Tubulitis with an appropriate interstitial infiltrate supports acute cellular rejection after other causes of graft dysfunction are assessed.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- B. Hyperacute rejection: Usually begins within minutes to hours.
- C. Renal vein thrombosis: Imaging would demonstrate venous obstruction.
- D. Ureteric obstruction: Causes an outflow problem, not this biopsy pattern.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Evidence: Tubulitis and appropriate interstitial T-cell infiltration support acute cellular rejection.
- Imaging role: Doppler evaluates vascular and surgical causes of dysfunction.
- Trap: Day of presentation and graft swelling alone cannot diagnose rejection.
Exam Pearl: Doppler assesses flow; biopsy establishes rejection.
Which artery is the principal named supply to the descending colon?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: D. Left colic artery
Explanation: The left colic artery, an IMA branch, supplies descending colon through its branches and the marginal arcade.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Ileocolic artery: Supplies terminal ileum, caecum and appendix.
- B. Middle colic artery: Predominantly supplies transverse colon.
- C. Superior rectal artery: Supplies the upper rectum.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Origin: The left colic artery is an IMA branch.
- Territory: It supplies descending colon and contributes to distal transverse-colon supply.
- Bleeding management: Embolisation should target a demonstrated bleeding branch selectively.
Exam Pearl: Descending colon → left colic artery → IMA.
A renal transplant recipient develops sudden anuria despite a patent urinary catheter. Doppler shows absent main renal arterial and intrarenal perfusion. What is most likely?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: B. Renal artery thrombosis
Explanation: Abrupt loss of arterial inflow can cause sudden cessation of urine production and threatens graft survival.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Blocked urinary catheter: Patency has been confirmed.
- C. Ureteric obstruction: Does not itself account for absent main arterial flow.
- D. Uncomplicated acute rejection: Cannot be assumed when arterial perfusion is absent.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Presentation: Arterial inflow loss may cause sudden anuria.
- Initial check: Confirm catheter patency and assess systemic perfusion.
- Urgency: Absent graft arterial perfusion requires urgent transplant-team review.
Exam Pearl: Sudden anuria plus absent arterial perfusion → suspect arterial thrombosis.
Ten days after transplantation, a patient develops graft pain, swelling and anuria. Doppler shows absent renal venous flow with reversed arterial diastolic flow. What is most likely?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: C. Renal vein thrombosis
Explanation: Venous occlusion congests the graft and increases vascular resistance, potentially reversing arterial diastolic flow.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Ureteric obstruction: Does not explain absent venous flow as the primary finding.
- B. Hyperacute rejection: Usually occurs immediately after reperfusion.
- D. Isolated renal artery stenosis: More often produces a stenotic arterial waveform and hypertension.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Clinical clues: Graft pain, swelling and oliguria/anuria may occur.
- Doppler clues: Absent venous flow with reversed arterial diastolic flow supports venous occlusion.
- Trap: Diastolic reversal alone also occurs in other causes of graft dysfunction.
Exam Pearl: Venous thrombosis congests the graft; interpret arterial reversal with venous findings.
A stable patient develops iron-deficiency anaemia after Roux-en-Y gastric bypass despite adequate oral iron. Bleeding has been excluded. What is the best next replacement?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: A. Intravenous iron
Explanation: Gastric bypass can impair iron absorption; intravenous iron bypasses this problem when oral replacement is ineffective.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- B. Vitamin B12 alone: Does not replace iron in confirmed iron deficiency.
- C. Folate alone: Does not correct iron depletion.
- D. Routine blood transfusion: Not the usual replacement for stable uncomplicated iron deficiency.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Mechanism: Bypass can impair iron absorption.
- Replacement: IV iron is useful when oral iron is ineffective or unlikely to be absorbed.
- Assessment: Check iron stores and consider B12, folate and other causes of anaemia.
Exam Pearl: Persistent iron deficiency after malabsorptive bypass may require IV iron.
Coronary arterial dominance is principally defined by the origin of which artery?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: D. Posterior interventricular artery
Explanation: The posterior interventricular artery is also called the posterior descending artery (PDA). Its source identifies the usual dominance pattern.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Left anterior descending artery: Usually arises from the left coronary system regardless of dominance.
- B. SA nodal artery: Its origin does not define dominance.
- C. Obtuse marginal artery: A circumflex branch rather than the defining vessel.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Synonym: Posterior interventricular artery is the posterior descending artery (PDA).
- Right dominance: The PDA originates from the RCA.
- Left dominance: The PDA originates from the circumflex artery.
Exam Pearl: Coronary dominance is defined by the PDA's origin.
Which artery gives important branches to the abdominal oesophagus?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: B. Left gastric artery
Explanation: Ascending branches of the left gastric artery supply the abdominal oesophagus; inferior phrenic contributions also occur.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Inferior mesenteric artery: Supplies hindgut structures.
- C. Ileocolic artery: Supplies distal small bowel and proximal colon.
- D. Right gastroepiploic artery: Supplies distal greater curvature.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Abdominal supply: Left gastric branches provide important oesophageal supply.
- Additional supply: Inferior phrenic branches can contribute.
- Thoracic contrast: Thoracic oesophagus also receives branches from the thoracic aorta.
Exam Pearl: Abdominal oesophagus → left gastric arterial branches.
An arterial aneurysm compresses the left renal vein from anteriorly where it crosses the aorta. Which artery is involved?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: C. Superior mesenteric artery
Explanation: The SMA is anterior and the aorta posterior to the normal left renal vein, explaining anterior compression by an SMA lesion.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Inferior mesenteric artery: Originates below this crossing.
- B. Splenic artery: Runs along the pancreatic superior border.
- D. Coeliac trunk: Lies superior to the typical aortomesenteric crossing.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Anterior relation: SMA lies in front of the normal left renal vein.
- Posterior relation: Aorta lies behind the vein.
- Clinical contrast: Usual nutcracker compression reflects a narrowed angle rather than an aneurysm.
Exam Pearl: An anterior artery compressing the left renal vein at the aorta is the SMA.
Angiography localises bleeding to a sigmoid-colon arterial branch. Which parent artery supplies it?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: A. Inferior mesenteric artery
Explanation: Sigmoid arteries arise from the IMA and reach the sigmoid colon through its mesocolon.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- B. Superior mesenteric artery: Predominantly supplies midgut.
- C. Coeliac trunk: Supplies foregut organs.
- D. External iliac artery: Supplies the lower limb and abdominal wall.
Additional high-yield notes:
- IMA branches: Left colic, sigmoid and superior rectal arteries.
- Territory: Sigmoid arteries pass through the sigmoid mesocolon.
- Clinical point: Bleeding location must be established before selective intervention.
Exam Pearl: Sigmoid arteries arise from the IMA.
After regional perigastric and pancreaticosplenic nodes, gastric fundus lymph ultimately reaches which main pre-aortic group?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: D. Coeliac nodes
Explanation: Fundal lymph follows short gastric and left gastroepiploic vessels to regional nodes and then towards coeliac nodes.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Superior mesenteric nodes: Principal midgut drainage.
- B. Inferior mesenteric nodes: Principal hindgut drainage.
- C. Superficial inguinal nodes: Drain superficial lower limb and selected superficial territories.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Regional route: Fundal lymph follows short gastric and left gastroepiploic vessels.
- First stations: Perigastric and pancreaticosplenic nodes are important regional groups.
- Ultimate group: Coeliac nodes receive downstream foregut lymphatic drainage.
Exam Pearl: Regional fundal nodes precede ultimate coeliac drainage.
The inferior mesenteric vein usually drains directly into which vessel?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: B. Splenic vein
Explanation: The IMV commonly joins the splenic vein, which subsequently joins the SMV to form the portal vein.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Inferior vena cava: A systemic vein; hindgut blood normally enters portal circulation.
- C. Left renal vein: Not the usual hindgut drainage route.
- D. External iliac vein: Drains lower-limb and abdominal-wall territories.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Usual route: IMV joins the splenic vein.
- Portal formation: Splenic vein joins the SMV behind the pancreatic neck.
- Variation: IMV may join the SMV or portal confluence instead.
Exam Pearl: IMV usually → splenic vein.
Which major vein lies immediately anterior to the medial part of the right adrenal gland?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: C. Inferior vena cava
Explanation: The right adrenal gland lies behind the IVC and adjacent to the liver.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Left renal vein: Related to the left adrenal venous drainage.
- B. Portal vein: Not the characteristic direct adrenal relation.
- D. Superior vena cava: Situated in the thorax.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Relation: The IVC lies anterior to the medial right adrenal gland.
- Drainage: The short right adrenal vein usually enters the IVC directly.
- Left comparison: The left adrenal vein usually enters the left renal vein.
Exam Pearl: Right adrenal gland lies behind the IVC.
The embryonic midgut rotates around which artery?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: A. Superior mesenteric artery
Explanation: The SMA forms the vascular axis of midgut rotation.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- B. Coeliac trunk: Supplies foregut derivatives.
- C. Inferior mesenteric artery: Supplies hindgut derivatives.
- D. Umbilical artery: Connects fetal circulation to the placenta.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Axis: The superior mesenteric artery forms the midgut rotation axis.
- Direction: The classical model is anticlockwise when viewed from anteriorly.
- Amount: 90 degrees during herniation plus 180 degrees during return, totalling 270 degrees.
Exam Pearl: Midgut rotates 270 degrees anticlockwise around the SMA.
Which artery principally supplies the proximal two-thirds of the transverse colon?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: D. Middle colic artery
Explanation: The middle colic artery arises from the SMA and supplies most of the transverse colon.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Left colic artery: Predominantly supplies the distal transverse and descending colon.
- B. Ileocolic artery: Supplies ileocaecal territory.
- C. Superior rectal artery: Supplies upper rectum.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Origin: The middle colic artery arises from the SMA.
- Boundary: The distal third of transverse colon belongs to hindgut territory.
- Distal supply: Left colic branches contribute to the distal transverse colon.
Exam Pearl: Proximal two-thirds transverse colon → middle colic/SMA.
At the left renal hilum, where does the main renal artery lie relative to the renal vein?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: B. Posterior to the renal vein
Explanation: The renal artery is behind the vein and in front of the pelvis.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Anterior to the renal vein: Reverses the usual hilar order.
- C. Within the renal vein: These are separate vessels.
- D. Posterior to the renal pelvis: The artery normally lies anterior to the pelvis.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Anterior structure: The renal vein precedes the artery in the hilum.
- Posterior structure: The renal pelvis lies behind the artery.
- Operative point: Branching anatomy varies and should be reviewed before surgery.
Exam Pearl: Renal artery lies between vein and pelvis.
An IMA occlusion causes no colonic ischaemia because of SMA collateral flow. Which artery is the key contributing branch?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: C. Middle colic artery
Explanation: Middle colic flow can reach left colic territory through anastomoses, particularly the marginal artery.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Left colic artery: Usually arises from the occluded IMA system, not the independent SMA source.
- B. Superior rectal artery: Also an IMA branch.
- D. Splenic artery: Supplies spleen and selected gastric/pancreatic territories.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Pathway: Marginal artery connections link SMA and IMA territories.
- Drummond: The marginal artery runs near the colonic margin.
- Riolan: The arc of Riolan is a more central, variable collateral connection.
Exam Pearl: Middle colic can maintain IMA territory through collateral circulation.
After bowel infarction, only 5 cm of jejunum remains connected to colon. Which support is essential for long-term nutrition?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: A. Parenteral nutrition
Explanation: Such extreme small-bowel loss causes intestinal failure; intravenous nutrition and often fluid/electrolyte support are required.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- B. Feeding jejunostomy alone: Changes delivery, not the inadequate absorptive surface.
- C. Nasogastric feeding alone: Cannot overcome this degree of intestinal failure.
- D. Specialised enteral formula alone: Cannot usually meet all requirements with only 5 cm remaining.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Mechanism: Extreme bowel loss causes inadequate nutrient and fluid absorption.
- Support: Parenteral nutrition and fluid/electrolyte replacement may be required.
- Rehabilitation: Tolerated oral or enteral intake can be used alongside necessary IV support.
Exam Pearl: Only 5 cm of jejunum remaining → severe intestinal failure requiring parenteral support.
The anterior and posterior caecal arteries arise from which artery?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: D. Ileocolic artery
Explanation: The ileocolic artery is an SMA branch supplying the terminal ileum, caecum and adjacent territory.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Middle colic artery: Supplies transverse colon.
- B. Left colic artery: Supplies descending and distal transverse colon.
- C. Superior rectal artery: Supplies upper rectum.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Origin: The ileocolic artery arises from the SMA.
- Territory: Terminal ileum, caecum and adjacent proximal colon.
- Appendix: The appendicular artery usually arises from the ileocolic system.
Exam Pearl: Caecum → ileocolic artery.
A persistent vitelline artery supplying a Meckel diverticulum belongs to which arterial system?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: B. Superior mesenteric artery
Explanation: Meckel diverticulum is an ileal remnant of the vitelline duct and receives a persistent vitelline branch from the SMA system.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Coeliac trunk: Foregut territory.
- C. Inferior mesenteric artery: Hindgut territory.
- D. Internal iliac artery: Pelvic rather than ileal supply.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Origin: Meckel diverticulum is a remnant of the vitelline duct.
- Anatomy: It is a true diverticulum on the antimesenteric ileal border.
- Bleeding: Ectopic gastric mucosa may cause ulceration in adjacent ileum.
Exam Pearl: Meckel's arterial supply belongs to the SMA system.
Bleeding is proven angiographically to arise from the lower anal canal below the pectinate line. Which artery is the relevant supply?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: C. Inferior rectal artery
Explanation: Inferior rectal branches, usually from the internal pudendal artery, supply the lower anal canal.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Middle colic artery: Supplies transverse colon.
- B. Sigmoid arteries: Supply sigmoid colon.
- D. Ileocolic artery: Supplies ileocaecal territory.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Source: Inferior rectal arteries usually arise from the internal pudendal artery.
- Territory: They supply the lower anal canal.
- Trap: Blood on a PR glove does not identify an arterial territory or embolisation target.
Exam Pearl: Localise rectal bleeding before choosing an artery to embolise.
A surgeon follows the vein leaving the inferomedial left adrenal gland. Into which major vein does it usually drain?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: A. Left renal vein
Explanation: The left adrenal vein travels inferiorly to the left renal vein, often after joining the inferior phrenic vein.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- B. Inferior vena cava directly: Usual right adrenal drainage.
- C. Splenic vein: An adjacent pancreatic vessel, not usual adrenal drainage.
- D. Inferior mesenteric vein: A hindgut portal tributary.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Left adrenal drainage: Usually to the left renal vein.
- Common trunk: The inferior phrenic vein may join the left adrenal vein.
- Relation contrast: Pancreas is an anterior relation; this differs from the inferomedial venous outlet.
Exam Pearl: Left adrenal → left renal vein; right adrenal → IVC.
Which gastric region receives short gastric branches from the splenic arterial system?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: D. Fundus
Explanation: Short gastric arteries supply the fundus. The splenic artery also supplies proximal greater curvature through the left gastroepiploic artery.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Pyloric canal: Predominantly supplied by right-sided gastric branches.
- B. Second duodenal part: Supplied by pancreaticoduodenal arcades.
- C. Lower oesophagus exclusively: Main abdominal oesophageal supply includes left gastric branches.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Fundus: Supplied by short gastric branches from the splenic system.
- Greater curvature: Proximal supply includes the left gastroepiploic artery.
- Collateral flow: Splenic artery ligation does not inevitably cause gastric necrosis.
Exam Pearl: Short gastric arteries supply the fundus.
A man develops a left varicocele from obstruction of the vein receiving the left gonadal vein. Which vein is obstructed?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: B. Left renal vein
Explanation: Left renal venous obstruction raises upstream gonadal venous pressure, producing dilatation of the pampiniform plexus.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Right renal vein: Does not normally receive the left gonadal vein.
- C. Portal vein: Not part of gonadal drainage.
- D. Left external iliac vein: Not the usual left gonadal outlet.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Drainage: The left gonadal vein enters the left renal vein.
- Mechanism: Renal venous obstruction raises upstream gonadal pressure.
- Assessment: A new, atypical or non-reducing varicocele warrants evaluation for secondary causes.
Exam Pearl: Left renal vein obstruction may produce a left varicocele.
Which vessel is compressed in classical anterior nutcracker syndrome?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: C. Left renal vein
Explanation: The left renal vein is trapped between the SMA and aorta, potentially causing haematuria, loin pain and a left varicocele.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Superior mesenteric artery: Forms the anterior compressing boundary.
- B. Aorta: Forms the posterior boundary.
- D. Right renal vein: Does not cross the aortomesenteric angle.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Compressed vessel: The left renal vein.
- Boundaries: SMA anteriorly and aorta posteriorly.
- Different syndrome: SMA syndrome compresses the third duodenal part, not the renal vein.
Exam Pearl: Nutcracker compresses the vein; SMA syndrome compresses the duodenum.
Physical examination is inconclusive for a suspected varicocele. Which imaging test should be requested first?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: A. Scrotal colour Doppler ultrasound
Explanation: Doppler demonstrates dilated pampiniform veins and reflux, assessed with position and Valsalva as appropriate.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- B. CT abdomen: Reserved for selected concerns about secondary pathology.
- C. MRI pelvis: Not the usual first-line confirmation test.
- D. Catheter venography: Invasive and usually associated with intervention.
Additional high-yield notes:
- First assessment: Varicocele is primarily diagnosed clinically.
- Imaging: Doppler helps when examination is inconclusive.
- Technique: Position and Valsalva help assess venous dilatation and reflux.
Exam Pearl: Uncertain varicocele examination → scrotal colour Doppler.
Which artery is the principal supply to the upper rectum?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: D. Superior rectal artery
Explanation: The superior rectal artery is the terminal continuation of the IMA into the pelvis.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Middle rectal artery: Variable internal iliac contribution to the rectum.
- B. Inferior rectal artery: Predominantly supplies lower anal canal.
- C. Middle colic artery: Supplies transverse colon.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Origin: Superior rectal artery continues from the IMA.
- Upper rectum: Principal territory of the superior rectal artery.
- Anastomoses: Connections exist with middle and inferior rectal circulation.
Exam Pearl: Upper rectum → superior rectal artery → IMA.
Where does the splenic vein run in relation to the pancreatic body?
Review explanation
Correct Answer: B. Posterior to it
Explanation: The splenic vein lies behind the pancreatic body and joins the SMV behind the pancreatic neck to form the portal vein.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Anterior to it: Not its usual course.
- C. Within the pancreatic duct: Separate ductal and venous structures.
- D. Along the lesser gastric curvature: Location of gastric vessels rather than the splenic vein.
Additional high-yield notes:
- Course: Splenic vein runs behind the pancreatic body.
- Confluence: It joins SMV behind the pancreatic neck to form the portal vein.
- Clinical relevance: Splenic vein thrombosis can cause isolated gastric varices.
Exam Pearl: Portal vein forms behind the pancreatic neck.
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